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POWhen does CLR say that an object has a finalizer?
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copied!<p>I know that in C#, if you write <code>~MyClass()</code>, this basically translates to <code>override System.Object.Finalize()</code>. So, whether you write the <em>destructor</em> or not, every type in CLR will have a <code>Finalize()</code> method in it (of <code>System.Object</code> at least).</p> <p>1] So, does it mean that, every object, by default, <strong>has</strong> a finalizer ?</p> <p>2] What is the basis for the CLR to decide that an object should be put through finalization queue ? </p> <p>I'm asking this, because, I had a class, say <code>ManagedResourceHolder</code> that implemented <code>IDisposable</code>, but did not call <code>GC.SuppressFinalize(this)</code> in its <code>IDisposable.Dispose()</code> method. The class did not hold any unmanaged resources, and there was no need for the <code>~ManagedResourceHolder()</code> method, which in turn meant no need for the <code>GC.SuppressFinalize(this)</code> call as there was no <em>finalizer</em>.</p> <p>3] In context of the above scenario, is it <strong>always</strong> necessary to provide a finalizer when you implement IDisposable ? (even on a class that holds no unmanaged resources)</p> <p>The FxCop rule <a href="http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms182269.aspx" rel="noreferrer">CA1816</a> was giving me a violation on this and the response I got <a href="http://social.msdn.microsoft.com/Forums/en-US/vstscode/thread/4e8a3155-6f12-4888-9ca1-f6762761e038" rel="noreferrer">here</a> when I asked in the CA forum on MSDN confused me.</p> <p>Thanks.</p>

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